SlowDownDerek
UTC Legend
We can keep spinning it round and round but...
Option one - they had £2.5million payments on the loan.
Option two - pay an additional £10million to purchase him and loan him out with a future sale for £12million.
Which is back to the original point I was making. They purchased him to lower their loses on the original loan deal.
How is it a loss? The wanted him in their team so they paid us to loan him? Didn't the loan fee increase due to a promotion clause anyway?